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Instrument Rating Quiz

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1. Controlled Airspace (IRA-4473)
Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?
A - The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
B - That Class D airspace extending from the surface and terminating at the base of the continental control area.
C - The Class C airspace extending from the surface to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL, where designated.
 
2. En Route Procedures (IRA-4612)
(Refer to Figure 113 .) You receive this ATC clearance:
"...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern.
A - Direct only.
B - Parallel only.
C - Teardrop only.
 
3. Equipment Instrument and Certificate Requirements (IRA-4045)
What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly for longer than 30 minutes without using supplemental oxygen?
A - 12,000 feet.
B - 12,500 feet.
C - 10,500 feet.
 
4. Air Navigation Radio Aids (IRA-4378)
When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing selector and the TO/FROM indicator should read
A - within 6° of the selected radial.
B - within 4° of the selected radial.
C - 0° TO, only if you are due south of the VOR.
 
5. General (IRA-4031)
Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?
A - For any flight above an altitude of 1,200 feet AGL, when the visibility is less than 3 miles.
B - When operating in class E airspace.
C - For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan.
 
6. Preflight (IRA-4300)
(Refer to Figure 44 .) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?
A - I.
B - A.
C - C.
 
7. Visual Flight Rules (IRA-4521)
(Refer to Figure 92 .) A flight is to be conducted in VFR-on-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL). What is the in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation in Class E airspace during daylight hours for area 1?
A - 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 2,000 feet; (D) 500 feet.
B - 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.
C - 3 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 2,000 feet; (D) 1,000 feet.
 
8. Service Available to Pilots (IRA-4421)
During a flight, the controller advises "traffic 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound." The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?
A - 40° to the right of the airplane's nose.
B - 20° to the right of the airplane's nose.
C - Straight ahead.
 
9. Using the Navigation Instruments (IRA-4559)
(Refer to Figure 95 .) Which OBS selection on the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?
A - 175°.
B - 345°.
C - 165°.
 
10. ATC Clearance Separations (IRA-4454)
What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR on Top on a westbound flight below 18,000 feet?
A - Even thousand foot levels.
B - Even thousand foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.
C - Odd thousand foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.